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International studies

Todays Date: December 15, 2018

1. According to Tilly, what forms of gender inequality emerge in the context of the industrial revolution and why?
Industrial revolution brought a positive change throughout the world definitely, but Tilly has had found some inequalities or discriminations between men and women due to the industrial revolution and also the causes. In term of cooperation and bargaining power industrial revolution strengthened more the male than the women. Due to the work at outside the home, higher wages made male’s bargaining power stronger; at the same time women’s inadequate contribution at outside most often was ignored and discounted. Women’s outside work was assumed as an additional as the side of housework. Also the control of women over the capital and approach to the job was limited by law, while male were encouraged legally. Though the advantage of both male and women depended on several factors, such as, political and wealth power, the influential position in the work force, age, health and so on. But ultimately males were given priority in both entrepreneurship and the industrial workplace. The initial period of industrial revolution provided experiences and opportunities both for male and women, while women put a vital role in favour of buisness and industrial capitali accumulation, human capital development, household and firm mediation and gender role. But latterly women’s political and legal disqualification, supiriority of male over women domestic specialist, women’s narrow scope of job with lower scale of wage and their confined scope for advancement reestablished the gender inequalities. This situation was changed by some british working class women at the early twentieth century, when the women made a feminist movement in favour of women right, otherwise for this situation the women had to wait for another fifty years untill another feminist movement occur (Tilly 1994).

2. How did British colonial administrators explain the emergence of famine in India as outlined by Davis in *LVH*; and what reasons are offered by their critics (and the author)? In the context of the “Temple Wage”, how does Davis analyze prevailing ideas of the “free market” and justifications for government policy?
A world’s historical famine occurred in 1876-1879 in India at the time of British colonial administration fundamentally due to the consequence of drought. According to the British colonial administrators explanation Mike Davis has outlined the famine. In 1876 the drought came into the land of India as an evil, which subsequently elaborated a famine. The famine started from Madras and spread itself throughout the eastern coast of the southern India to the Mysore, then the Bombay Decans in the northern area (the area of India surrounded by the river Narmada) and ultimately attacked the barren areas of the North Western Provinces of India. Catastropically in many district of India lossed the crops.

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